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1. The fuel system boost pumps are used to:
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2. Why is the capacitance-type fuel quantity gauge system the system that is most often used on large turbine aircraft?
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3. An electrically activated and operated fuel valve is called a(n):
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4. During fuelling operations
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5. The maximum quantity of fuel that can be dumped with the jettisoning system is:
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6. Fuel booster pumps are necessary in large aircraft:
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7. In a compensated capacitance type quantity indicating system, the contents gauge of a half-full fuel tank indicates a fuel mass of 8000 lb. If a temperature rise increased the volume of fuel by 5 %, the indicated fuel weight would:
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8. A fuel system booster pump other than pumping fuel to the engine may also be used for:
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9. How much fuel is required for a retained sample?
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10. To indicate that a refuelling bowser carries JET Al aviation kerosene:
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11. An aircraft using MOGAS:
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12. The CROSS-FEED fuel system enables:
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13. The refuelling in a transport jet aircraft is made...
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14. On a jet aircraft, when installed, fuel heaters are:
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15. The fuel tanks in small aircraft are mainly located:
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16. The advantage of a capacitor type fuel contents gauging system is that the circuit:
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17. The purpose of baffle check valves fitted in aircraft fuel tanks is to:
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18. The cross-feed fuel system is used to:
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19. Special fuel consumption schedules during flight are designed due:
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20. Fuel jettisoning is:
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21. Prior to fuelling an aircraft, which of the following precautions must be carried out?
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22. JET A1:
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23. When refuelling a swept-wing aircraft, the order of filling the fuel tanks should be
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24. On a transport type aircraft the fuel tank system is vented through:
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25. A failed capacitance fuel contents gauge would:
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26. The purpose of the barometric correction in a fuel controller is to:
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27. On A/C with a fuel pressure gauge, where is the pressure normally measured? (Aircraft with fuel injection)
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28. During refuelling operations:
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29. If a fuel tank with a capacitive quantity system was filled with water instead of fuel, the gauge would indicate:
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30. Adjustments may have to made to an aircraft's engine fuel system if it has been refuelled with JET B instead of its normal JET Al fuel, these adjustments are to cater for:
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31. A one way check valve will:
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32. What will be the effect on the indicated fuel contents if a capacitive system fuel contents gauge fails in flight?
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33. On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are:
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34. AVTUR Jet A1:
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35. Unusable fuel is:
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36. What are the advantages of a Flexible Fuel Tank over an Integral Tank?
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37. When baffles are fitted to aircraft fuel tanks, the purpose is to:
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38. The fuel system boost pumps are submerged in the fuel :
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39. In the event an APU is required to be running during fuelling operations, which of the following precautions must be observed?
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40. Fuel is pressurized to:
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41. The indications of a failure of the capacitive fuel indication system will be:
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42. An integral type fuel tank is:
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43. Waxing is:
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44. How much fuel can be jettisoned?
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45. The fuel required for a planned flight is 28,000kg. The fuel in the tanks is 24,000 litres (SG of the fuel is 0,8). The required fuel volume is:
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46. While refuelling with passengers on board, when a loading bridge is in use:
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47. The pressurization of tanks is maintained by the fuel
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48. The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel supply system is within the following range:
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49. What is the ratio between the litre and the US gallon?
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50. If the specific gravity of a fuel is known to be 0.7 the weight of 20 imperial gallons of that fuel would be:
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51. From the statements below, which aircraft should have a fuel dumping system?
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52. Baffles are fitted in aircraft fuel tanks:
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53. Fuel is heated:
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54. On an aircraft equipped with a compensated capacitance type fuel quantity indication system graduated to read in kg, the temperature increases just after the tanks are half filled with fuel. If the fuel expands by 10%, the gauges will show:
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55. During fuelling the automatic fuelling shut off valves will switch off the fuel supply system when:
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56. The Maximum Zero Fuel Weight:1. Is a limitation set by regulation.2. Is designed for a maximum load factor.3. Is due to the maximum bending moment at wing root.4. Requires to empty external tanks first.5. Requires to empty internal tanks first.The correct combination of true statements is:
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57. The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel heating device, upstream of the main fuel filter so as to:
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58. The automatic fuelling shut off valve:
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59. Why are baffles fitted to aircraft fuel tanks?
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60. The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the fuel quantity by measuring the:
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61. Adjustment may have to be made to an aircraft fuel system if it has been refuelled with JET B instead of its normal JET A1 fuel. These adjustments are to cater for:
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62. Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-engine aircraft are:
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63. When checking the fuel for possible water content, the presence of water will be indicated by
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64. The aircraft cannot be refuelled while:
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65. AVTUR or JET A1:
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66. An integral fuel tank:
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67. The fuel cross feed valves are fitted in order to facilitate:
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68. Capacitive fuel quantity measurement systems compensate for fuel movement in the tanks by:
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69. Cloudiness of a sample of AVTUR is an indication of:
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70. Refuelling with passengers on board is not permissible:
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71. To what distance should a fuelling zone extend from a fuelling point or vent point?
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72. Fuel tanks are vented so that:
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73. The Low Pressure engine driven pump:
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74. Fire precautions to be observed before refuelling are:
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75. Fuel tank booster pumps are:
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76. The colour of AVGAS 100 is:
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77. Booster pumps as fitted in a fuel system are:
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78. Un-dissolved water in a fuel sample:
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79. The disadvantage of refuelling the aircraft to " tanks full" the night before a departure in the heat of the day is that:
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80. Fuel dump systems are required:
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81. During fuel jettison, the aircraft is protected against running out of fuel by:
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82. When fuelling an aircraft, what action may be taken to reduce the build up of static electricity?
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83. The purpose of the baffles in an aircraft's integral fuel tank is to:
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84. In a typical fuel/oil heat exchanger:
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85. If a fuel sample appears cloudy or hazy, the most probable cause is:
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86. The LP fuel pump is driven by:
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87. In an aircraft low pressure refuelling system, what is fitted to prevent a fuel tank from becoming over pressurised?
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88. In an aircraft low pressure refuelling system, what is fitted to prevent a fuel tank from becoming over pressurised?
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89. Refuelling a fixed wing aircraft with passengers embarking is permissible:
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90. AVGAS 100LL is:
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91. Fuel stored in aircraft tanks will accumulate moisture. The most practical way to minimize this when a plane is used every day or so is to:
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92. The vapour lock is:
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93. The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to:
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94. The purpose of the fuel cooled oil cooler is to:
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95. Baffles can be mounted inside the tanks to:
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96. Drain cocks are fitted:
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97. The fuel crossfeed system:
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98. The flash point of a fuel is:
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99. The types of fuel tanks used on most modern transport aircraft are:
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100. A fuel booster pump, which is used to provide positive fuel flow to the engine, can also be used for:
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101. Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a modern jet aircraft are:
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102. In a compensated capacitance fuel contents system what happens to a fuel weight of 8000lbs if its volume increases by 5%?
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103. VAPOR LOCK is the phenomenon by which:
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104. The vent pipe of an aircraft's fuel tank must not become blocked because:
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105. What pressure does booster pump supply fuel at?
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106. When ice forms on the Vibrating Rod ice detector:
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107. To prevent propeller elements overheating:
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108. In flight airframe icing does not occur:
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109. Regarding carburettor ice, state the environmental caution areas for the formation of this type of ice.
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110. Freezing point depressant (FPD) is supplied in two types:
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111. The ice protection for propellers of modern turboprop aeroplanes works:
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112. The electrical supply to the propeller blades for de-icing purposes
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113. The accurate method of removing snow and ice that has accumulated on the aircraft during parking, is:
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114. The elements specifically protected against icing on transport aircraft are:
1. engine air intake and pod.2. front glass shield.3. radome.4. pitot tubes and waste water exhaust masts.5. leading edge of wing.6. cabin windows.7. trailing edge of wings.8. electronic equipment compartment.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
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115. Ice detectors are used primarily to warn the crew:
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116. A typical electrical anti-icing/de-icing system would consist of the following components:
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117. Usually, electric heating for ice protection is used on:
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118. In order to prevent/eliminate ice build-ups on a pitot tube on light aircraft, the pilot can use:
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119. Fluid is delivered to a propeller by:
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120. When anti-icing fluid is applied to an aircraft, which of the following icing conditions would give the longest holdover times?
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121. Modern Turboprop aircraft are anti-iced by which method
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122. The electrical power which is supplied to the propeller blades for de-icing purposes:
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123. Propeller electrical de-icing systems:
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124. An aircraft is to be de-iced and then enter the line up for departure. Which de-ice fluid will have the best holdover time at 0° C with precipitation:
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125. Generally, for large aeroplanes, electrical heating for ice protection is used on:
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126. The probe heater operates:
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127. The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is:
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128. The effect of frost on an aircraft:
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129. Concerning electrically powered ice protection devices, the only true statement is:
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130. Propeller blade heating elements are:
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131. The hot rod ice detector:
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132. When an aircraft is de-iced prior to departure, if the temperature is 0° C in precipitation, which type of fluid and application method will provide the longest holdover period:
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133. The methods used to provide de-icing in flight can be:
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134. In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first:
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135. Engine bleed-air which is used for pressurisation of the cabin is:
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136. In the air cycle system the air is cooled down by expansion:
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137. Which is the most suitable relative humidity for an environmental control system to maintain in an aircraft?
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138. In an air cycle type air conditioning system, reduction of air temperature and pressure is achieved by:
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139. A Vapor Cycle Cooling system may be fitted to enhance the cooling cycle of an aircraft air conditioning system. On leaving the evaporator, in the correct sequence, which components does the gas pass through?
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140. When air is compressed for pressurization purposes, the percentage oxygen content is:
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141. The purpose of a spill valve in a cabin air supply system is:
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142. The maximum differential pressure of a transonic transport category airplane is approximately
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143. If the forward oil seal in an axial flow compressor fails, compressed air:
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144. An ACM produces a drop in temperature by:
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145. Inward vent valves operate when:
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146. Cabin differential pressure is the pressure difference between
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147. The turbine in a cold air unit (air cycle machine):
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148. Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is controlled by:
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149. In level pressurised flight the outflow valve:
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150. Typically, icing does not occur above about...
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151. When an aircraft has reached a flight level where pressure differential is at its maximum, the pressure controller:
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152. Cabin air for modern airplanes is usually taken from:
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153. An air cycle cooling system uses the principle of:
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154. A cabin humidifier is sometimes used:
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155. The pressure relief valve operates
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156. In a climatisation system, temperature control is achieved by:
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157. An aircraft with a pressurized cabin flies at level 310. Following a malfunction of the pressure controller, the outflow valve runs to the open position.
Given:
VZc = Cabin rate of climb indication
Zc = Cabin pressure altitude
DELTA P = Differential pressure
This will result in a:
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158. The term " pressure differential" can be defined as the pressure difference between:
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159. Pressurisation control ensures that:
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160. What must be isolated when carrying out a cabin pressurisation ground tests?
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161. Essential information whether to use the engine anti-ice system or not, is?
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162. A heat exchanger functions by:
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163. Cabin altitude in pressured flight is:
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164. Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained:
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165. An aircraft with a pressurized cabin is settled at its cruise level. During the flight, a malfunction of the pressure controller is detected by the crew and the cabin rate of climb indicator reads -200ft/min.
Given that:
Zc = Cabin altitude
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166. A humidifier is fitted to:
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167. The aircraft inhibiting switch connected to the A/C landing gear:
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168. Cabin altitude in pressurised flight is:
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169. The function of an air cycle machine is to:
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170. In normal operation, the maximum cabin altitude for a large passenger aircraft is:
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171. With a gas turbine engine, should engine anti-icing be selected " ON" :
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172. When taking off and when pressurisation is initiated, cabin rate of climb will show:
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173. During a normal take-off and climb:
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174. The power source for hot air in de-ice / anti ice systems on jet A/C is:
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175. In a pressurized aircraft whose cabin altitude is 8000 ft, a crack in a cabin window makes it necessary to reduce the differential pressure to 5 psi. The flight level to be maintained in order to keep the same cabin altitude is:
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176. Some pressure controllers have a ditching control. When activated:
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177. Which statement is true about the pressurisation system?
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178. Safety valves operate:
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179. De-icer boots consist of layers of... and... between which are disposed flat inflatable tubes... at the ends.
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180. Safety valves and inward relief valves operate:
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181. The function of spill valves is to control:
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182. The rate of change of cabin pressure should be kept to the minimum. Is this more important:
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183. The pneumatic actuators are normally of the:
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184. In a Bootstrap Bleed Air air-conditioning system, if the cabin temperature is reduced:
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185. Cabin altitude means the:
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186. The mass flow delivery from the engine driven mechanical compressors is controlled by:
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187. Ditching Cocks are operated:
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188. " Conditioned" air is air that has:
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189. Rate of change of cabin altitude is shown on a:
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190. If in cruise at 30000ft the cabin altitude is adjusted from 4000ft to 6000ft:
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191. A turbo-fan cold air unit will:
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192. A pneumatic de-ice system should be operated..
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193. In an aircraft air conditioning system the air cannot be treated for:
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194. What controls cabin pressurisation?
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195. If in flight a door warning light illuminates:
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196. When would negative differential be exceeded?
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197. In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primarily supplied by:
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198. With reference to a vapour cycle cooling system, which statement is correct:
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199. Cabin differential pressure means the pressure difference between:
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200. Choke valves in a mechanically driven cabin air compressor provide extra heating by:
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201. The boots of a pneumatic de-icing system are normally made of:
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202. To maintain a steady and constant airflow regardless of altitude or cabin pressure:
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203. The term " pressurisation cycle" means:
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204. After take-off during a normal pressurised climb:
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205. On landing, the cabin pressure is equalized with atmospheric pressure by the operation of:
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206. At maximum cabin differential pressure the:
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207. In a cabin air conditioning system, equipped with a bootstrap, the mass air flow is routed via the:
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208. At max differential phase, the discharge valve is:
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209. State the function of a heat exchanger:
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210. The cabin heating supply in a heavy jet transport aircraft is obtained from
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211. If the cabin pressure increases in level flight, the cabin VSI shows:
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212. A pressurisation circuit (normal operation) is designed so that the:
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213. The pneumatic ice protection system is mainly used for:
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214. An aircraft with pressurised cabin has maximum cabin altitude of 8000 feet, which equals 10.9 PSI. Present flight altitude is 30.000 feet, which equals 4.36 PSI. Pressure at sea level equals 14.7 PSI. Calculate the difference pressure that influence the cabin structure:
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215. One advantage of a pneumatic system is:
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216. If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:
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217. The rate of change of cabin pressure should be kept to the minimum. This is more important:
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218. Would you operate the flying controls during a cabin pressurisation ground test?
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219. During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could be decreased, even at this flight level), the cabin outflow valves are:
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220. When pressurising the cabin of an aircraft, the cabin pressure controller operates the:
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221. If an aircraft is descending, what will happen to the cabin pressure differential?
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222. Most of the cabin pressurisation systems have two modes of operation:
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223. If the discharge or outflow valve closes:
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224. The air-cycle cooling system produces cold air by:
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225. The main elements of a vapour cycle cooling system are?
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226. During normal descent, the discharge valve (outflow valve) position is:
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227. In a climatisation system, an air to air heat exchanger is provided to:
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228. Assume that during cruise flight with air-conditioning packs ON, the outflow valve(s) would close. The result would be that:
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229. The vapour cycle cooler works on the principle of changing:
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230. In pressurised aircraft, temperature control is mainly achieved by:
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231. Concerning the sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain leading edge de-icing devices, one can affirm that:1. They prevent ice formation.2. They are triggered from the flight deck after icing has become visible.3. A cycle lasts more than ten seconds.4. There are more than ten cycles per second.The combination which regroups all the correct statements is:
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232. What is the purpose of the duct relief valve?
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233. Water collected by the water separator may be sprayed into the ram air duct. This has the effect of:
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234. In an air conditioning system, a pack valve is used to:
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235. In a bootstrap air cooling system the secondary heat exchanger:
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236. Main cabin temperature is:
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237. A typical MP pneumatic main system pressure would be:
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238. The cabin altitude selector on the flight deck works in conjunction with:
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239. The water separator of an air-conditioning unit is located at the cooling unit:
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240. A pressurisation system works by:
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241.
The pneumatic system accumulator is useful:
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242. In level pressurised flight does the outflow valve:
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243. A drop in temperature by a cold air unit is produced by:
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244. A cabin pressurisation system is often installed onboard turbine powered aircraft. If installed, it normally has:
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245. In a manually operated system, the cabin altitude rate of change is normally controlled by:
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246. The picollo duct is part of the:
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247. The term " cabin pressure" applies when an aeroplane:
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248. In a Bleed Air (Bootstrap) air conditioning system, where is the water extractor located?
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249. If pressurisation is selected before take-off the cabin rate of change indicator indicates
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250. The disadvantage of a HP pneumatic system when compared to a comparable hydraulic system would be:
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251. The term " Bootstrap" , when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and pressurisation system, refers to the:
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252. Air for conditioning and pressurisation is taken from:
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253. With regard to the pneumatic mechanical devices which afford protection against the formation of ice, the only correct statement is:
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254. What is the purpose of the pack cooling fans in the air conditioning system?
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255. In which sequence does the refrigerant of a vapour cycle refrigeration system pass through the different components?
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256. If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside ambient air pressure the:
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257. Assuming cabin differential pressure has reached the required value in normal flight conditions, if flight altitude and air conditioning system setting are maintained:
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258. Which of the following statements are correct?
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259. In level pressurised flight, the outflow valve:
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260. In a turbo cooler system, the cooling air is:
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261. The anti-ice or de-icing system which is mostly used for the wings of modern turboprop aeroplanes is:
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262. The primary heat exchanger in a turbo-compressor cooling system:
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263. The airflow from the air conditioning packs to the cabin is:
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264. A thermal wing de-icing system:
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265. The tubes in the de-ice boots are usually inflated alternately. Why?
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266. How is the (charge) air cooled in a bootstrap (turbo-compressor) system?
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267. Normal cabin ventilation and pressurisation is achieved by a:
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268. The purpose of a ditching control is to:
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269. In the case of a thermal de-icing system over temperature, this indicated by:
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270. Under normal conditions (JAR 25) the cabin pressure altitude is not allowed to exceed:
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271. For the pressurisation system, bleed air is used to drive the turbine of an air cycle machine in order to:
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272. High pressure pneumatic services would typically be:
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273. If pressurisation air supply comes from the compressor of the engine, an oil leak from the compressor bearings will:
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274. In the cruise at 30,000ft the cabin altitude is adjusted from 4,000ft to 6,000ft:
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275. What is the purpose of the duct relief valve:
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276. A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by:
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277. If the maximum operating altitude of an airplane is limited by the pressurized cabin, this limitation is due to the maximum:
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278. If pressure is manually controlled:
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279. When the destination field elevation is set on the pressurisation control system:
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280. The pack cooling fan provides:
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281. In the event of failure in one of the cabin air supplies, loss of cabin pressure is prevented by:
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282. An aircraft climbs from sea level to 16,000 ft at 1,000ft per min, the cabin pressurisation is set to climb at 500ft per min to a cabin altitude of 8,000ft. The time taken for the cabin to reach 8,000ft is:
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283. A typical refrigerant used in a vapour cycle cooling system is:
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284. A combustion heater works on the principle of:
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285. Cooling in a vapour cycle cooler is achieved by converting
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286. A combustion heater system is normally supplied from?
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287. An engine driven air conditioning blower system will normally include in addition to the blower:
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288. When air is known to be present in the hydraulic system you should:
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289. A modern aeroplane is equipped with warning lights in the cockpit to monitor the hydraulic system. What does the illumination of the hydraulic oil temperature light indicate?
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290. In the case of a failure of a cut-out valve:
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291. In order to control the rate of movement of a service in a hydraulic system a... valve is used
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292. One reason for fitting an accumulator in a hydraulic system is to:
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293. A complex hydraulic system may pressurize the oil reservoir by means of bleed air from the engines, this is:
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294. A hydraulic restrictor valve:
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295. The oil reservoir in a hydraulic system has the purpose to serve as:
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296. If it is necessary to refill the hydraulic system and the approved hydraulic fluid is not available, you may:
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297. An accumulator is precharged with nitrogen to a pressure of 500 lb.in-2. The hydraulic system is then pressurised to 1500 lb.in-2. The accumulator gauge will now read:
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298. An ACOV will:
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299. A floating separator in a hydraulic system is used to:
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300. Red mineral hydraulic fluid (DTD 585) requires:
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301. A variable displacement type hydraulic pump:
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302. The colour of fluid DTD 585 is:
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303. In hydraulic system, a shuttle valve:
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304. In a hydraulic system, a selector valve is used to:
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305. When there is no flow in the tubes of a hydraulic system, the hydraulic pressure
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306. Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause:
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307. In an accumulator of the hydraulic system, a separator
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308. The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency hydraulic power for:
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309. In an aircraft hydraulic system, it is permissible to use:
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310. An automatic cut-out valve is installed in some hydraulic systems to:
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311. Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised by:
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312. Should the incorrect hydraulic fluid be used in a system:
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313. A hydraulic circuit utilising a constant volume pump would also require
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314. A hydraulic reservoir is installed in a hydraulic system primarily
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315. Case drain filters are:
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316. What is the purpose of a " relief valve" in the hydraulic system?
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317. To allow for failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting control, a hydraulic system often incorporates:
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318. The pressure filter in a hydraulic system:
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319. Hydraulic pressure in a closed centre system:
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320. Pascal’ s law states that:
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321. When excess pressure is relieved by the pressure relief valve it is:
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322. Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are generally
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323. Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised in order to:
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324. An automatic cut-out valve will
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325. The arrow on a non-return valve points:
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326. In addition to energy storage the accumulator of the hydraulic system is used:
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327. If hydraulic system pressure is 3000 psi and the piston strokes of two hydraulic actuators are equal, the work done by a 4 inch sq. actuator compared with the work done by a 1 inch sq. actuator will be:
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328. A shuttle valve:
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329. Discounting the possibility of leak, the level in a hydraulic reservoir will
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330. A hydraulic lock is said to exist when there is:
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331. What type of hydraulic seal will seal in one direction only?
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332. Cleanliness of the hydraulic fluid during use is assured by:
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333. A hydraulic fuse is used:
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334. A milky appearance at the sight glass of a hydraulic reservoir is an indication of:
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335. The fluid level in the reservoir of the system fitted with an accumulator
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336. In a hydraulic system, a thermal relief valve is fitted to:
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337. A hydraulic non-return valve:
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338. With a one way check valve (NRV):
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339. A HYDRAULIC FUSE will:
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340. In a hydraulic system utilising a constant delivery pump, essential components are:
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341. The purpose of a reservoir is:
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342. What is the purpose of a one way restrictor valve?
343 / 655
343. Different diameter actuators supplied with the same pressure at same rate:
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344. A hand pump will draw its supply from:
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345. The presence of a film of oil on the ram of a hydraulic jack, or actuator, when checked prior to flight:
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346. The tanks of a hydraulic system are pressurized
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347. The purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is to:
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348. In a hydraulic reservoir with a stack pipe fitted, the pipe line to the emergency pump is connected to:
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349. Thermal relief valves are set to:
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350. A pressure maintaining valve:
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351. Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually operate with a system pressure of approximately:
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352. High frequency vibration and hammering in a hydraulic system is:
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353. The hydraulic device similar to an electronic diode is a:
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354. Cavitation in a hydraulic pump can be discovered by a loud irregular sound. What might be the reason for a pump to cavitate?
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355. For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is:
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356. One of the functions of " automatic cut out valve" in a hydraulic supply system is to:
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357. One of the functions of " automatic cut out valve" in a hydraulic supply system is to:
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358. A variable displacement hydraulic pump on start up will always be at:
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359. Hydraulic accumulators are normally charged to:
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360. Hydraulic fluids of synthetic origin are
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361. A constant pressure hydraulic pump is governed by:
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362. Hydraulic pressure of 3000psi is applied to a jack whose area is 2sq in. If the same pressure is applied to a jack of 4sq in:
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363. A non return valve or check valve:
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364. The type of hydraulic oil used in modern hydraulic systems is:
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365. Emergency air bottle may be used for
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366. Restrictor valves are fitted:
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367. Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics:
1. thermal stability
2. low emulsifying characteristics
3. corrosion resistance
4. good resistance to combustion 5. high compressibility
6. high volatility 7. high viscosity
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
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368. The reason for the pressure accumulator in the hydraulic system is:
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369. An airspace is provided above the fluid in a reservoir to:
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370. What colour is the hydraulic liquid in a modern jet airliner?
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371. Hydraulic pressure of 3000Pa is applied to an actuator, the piston area of which is 0.02m2 and the same pressure is exerted on actuator whose area is 0.04m2
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372. What is the purpose of a flop tube, as fitted to a hydraulic reservoir?
373 / 655
373. When a hydraulic system is pressurised, the hydraulic quantity in the reservoir:
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374. Hydraulic fluid should have which of the following properties?
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375. The hydraulic pressure gauge provides information regarding the pressure of:
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376. The contents of the hydraulic fluid reservoir are checked. They indicate that the reservoir is at the full level. The system is then pressurised. Will the contents level:
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377. For calculation purposes, hydraulic fluid is considered to be:
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378. Skydrol 7000 is... A ... in colour, requires a...B... seal and is often used because...C...
379 / 655
379. The main reasons for using pressurised hydraulic reservoirs on jet transport aircraft is/are:
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380. The purpose of a pressure maintaining valve is to:
381 / 655
381. The colour of hydraulic fluid MIL-H-5606 is:
382 / 655
382. An accumulator has a gas charge pressure of 800 psi and the aircraft system has a residual hydraulic pressure of 600 psi. The accumulator gas gauge should read:
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383. A ... valve is used where two different values of pressure are required in a system
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384. In a modern hydraulic system, " hydraulic fuses" can be found. Their function is:
385 / 655
385. A restrictor valve in a hydraulic system:
386 / 655
386. A restrictor valve operates to:
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387. In an enclosed system pressure is felt:
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388. In a hydraulic system the master cylinders inner diameter is 10 mm2, and the actuator cylinders inner diameter is 100 mm2. If you press the master-cylinder 2 cm by using a 100 N force, the actuator cylinder will move: :
389 / 655
389. An accumulator air charge is 1000 psi. When the hydraulic system is pressurised to 1800 psi, the accumulator gauge will read:
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390. Prevention of damage to components in the closed part of a hydraulic system due to heat expansion:
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391. In a simple hydraulic system a pressure relief valve is fitted to:
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392. To prevent leakage of a mineral based fluid in two directions which seal is used?
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393. The specification of hydraulic fluids (mineral, vegetable or ester based) is:
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394. When topping up a system with fluid, the correct type can be recognised by:
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395. The indication of an internal leak in a hydraulic system will be:
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396. What is the purpose of a pressure switch in a hydraulic supply system?
397 / 655
397. An automatic cut-out valve is used in a:
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398. Where in the hydraulic system are the overheat indicators?
399 / 655
399. If hydraulic system pressure is 3000 psi and the piston strokes of two actuators are equal, the pressure on a 4 inch sq. jack compared to the pressure on a 1 inch sq. jack will be:
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400. An Automatic Cut Out Valve is installed in a hydraulic system:
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401. A hydraulic fluid should possess:
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402. In an aircraft hydraulic system it is permitted to use:
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403. A restrictor valve in a hydraulic system is fitted in the:
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404. The purpose of a shuttle valve is to:
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405. The hydraulic hand pump fitted to aircraft is:
406 / 655
406. Where in a hydraulic system might overheat indicators be installed?
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407. The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce
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408. Hand pumps are usually fitted to aircraft systems to:
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409. A hydraulic fuse is fitted in a hydraulic system, to prevent excessive fluid loss in the event of a leak:
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410. In a closed cylinder filled with fluid, pressure is:
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411. In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is precharged to 1200 psi. An electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of 3000 psi. The hydraulic pressure gauge which is connected to the gas section of the accumulator, reads:
412 / 655
412. The purpose of pressurising some hydraulic reservoirs is to:
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413. The function of the selector valve is to:
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414. If the system pressure is 3,000 psi the force provided by a 4 square inch jack compared to the force provided by a 2 square inch area jack will be:
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415. In a hydraulic system fitted with a constant volume pump, when maximum system pressure is reached:
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416. When air is found in a hydraulic system:
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417. Hydraulic fluids used in systems of modern airliners are:
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418. A 100lb force is applied to each of two unconnected actuators. The area of one is 2 inch2 and the area of the other is 4 inch2:
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419. The hydraulic fluid is changed, but the wrong fluid is replaced. This would lead to:
420 / 655
420. Hydraulic fluids:
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421. A constant pressure hydraulic pump is controlled by:
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422. A shuttle valve is used for:
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423. DTD 585 (MIL-H 5606) is coloured:
424 / 655
424. In a modern airliner what is hydraulic fluid used?
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425. If one uses the incorrect fluid in a hydraulic system:
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426. When a variable volume pump is stationary
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427. A pressure maintaining or priority valve:
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428. A circuit utilising a constant volume pump would also require:
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429. Slow, sluggish operation of a hydraulic system is:
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430. Hydraulic fluid is considered to be:
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431. The control surface that rotates the aircraft about its longitudinal axis is/are the:
432 / 655
432. If an artificial feel unit is fitted, it would be connected:
433 / 655
433. Trailing edge flaps:
434 / 655
434. With which system is differential control associated?
435 / 655
435. The purpose of the fairleads in a cable control system is to:
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436. "Feel" units are fitted when
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437. A servo tab moves?
438 / 655
438. Control surface flutter is minimised by:
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439. In a steep turn to the left, when using spoilers...
440 / 655
440. On an aeroplane, spoilers are:
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441. If the control stick of an aircraft is moved forward to the right, the left aileron will move:
442 / 655
442. If the control stick of an aircraft with properly rigged flight controls is moved rearward and to the left, the right aileron will move:
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443. If the control stick of an aircraft with properly rigged flight controls is moved rearward and to the left, the right aileron will move:
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444. An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel when:
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445. A Kruger flap is:
446 / 655
446. The trim tab:
447 / 655
447. The purpose of pulley wheels in cable control systems is:
448 / 655
448. To yaw the aircraft to the right
449 / 655
449. An artificial feel unit system:
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450. The elevators of a conventional airline are used to provide rotation about the:
451 / 655
451. If an artificial feel unit is fitted, it would be connected:
452 / 655
452. A Yaw Damper is:
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453. The advantages of fly-by-wire control are:
Reduction of the electric and hydraulic power required to operate the control surfaces2. Lesser sensitivity to lightning strike3. Direct and indirect weight saving through simplification of systems4. Immunity to different interfering signals5. Improvement of piloting quality throughout the flight envelopeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
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454. How do differential ailerons work?
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455. What is the name of the control surface that rotates an aeroplane about its longitudinal or roll axis?
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456. One type of flap used on aircraft moves down and increases the wing area by moving aft when lowered. This flap is known as:
457 / 655
457. On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are:
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458. The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to:
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459. Control surface flutter:
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460. The reason for the trim switch on a control column to consist of two separate switches is:
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461. What are " Kruger" flaps?
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462. Which of the following helps to prevent flutter?
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463. A q feel unit is:
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464. Some aircraft uses a fly by wire system to move the primary flight controls, this system is based on:
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465. On an aircraft, the Kruger flap is a:
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466. During the landing run, when wheel brake anti-skid units are activated
467 / 655
467. Control on the ground for small aeroplanes is provided by steering the nose wheel through connections to the rudder pedals, but large aeroplanes have normally:
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468. On the brake assembly there is an anti-skid system. From which device does the anti-skid control box get the information to regulate the brake pressure?
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469. Oil is used in an oleo strut to:
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470. A red band painted on the wall of a tyre is a:
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471. The ABS (Auto Brake System) is being disconnected after landing
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472. What is an essential requirement in a Nose Wheel Steering System?
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473. In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually
474 / 655
474. The pressure needed to operate the wheel brakes on a large aircraft comes from:
475 / 655
475. The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a:
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476. The most likely cause of brake fade is:
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477. At an aircraft taxiing speed of l0 mph the antiskid braking system is:
478 / 655
478. A main landing gear is said to be LOCKED DOWN when:
479 / 655
479. If the gas pressure is too high in an oleo leg it will:
480 / 655
480. Oil is required in an oleo strut to:
481 / 655
481. The movement of the gear on lowering is normally damped to:
482 / 655
482. A scissor is a component found on landing gears. Its function is to:
483 / 655
483. The disk brakes have more or less replaced the drum brakes. Why?
484 / 655
484. If the oleo-pneumatic shock strut extension of a landing gear on the ground is designed to be 6 inches, but it is found to be 2 inches:
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485. Gear retraction systems are classified according to the power source used for retraction and extension. Which are the most frequently used on larger aircraft?
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486. An accumulator may be fitted in a brake system to:
487 / 655
487. The most probable cause of main wheel shimmy is:
488 / 655
488. Multi Disc brake units are assessed for wear
489 / 655
489. The tyre pressures are checked after a long taxi to the ramp following landing. The pressures will have:
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490. When the main undercarriage gear is selected 'DOWN' in flight, it is locked down by:
491 / 655
491. What is reducing the shocks on the landing gear on an oleo shock absorber?
492 / 655
492. In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is:
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493. Shimmy occurs on the nosewheel landing gear during taxiing when:1. the wheels tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the ground2. the wheels no longer respond to the pilot's actionsThis effect is overcome by means of:3. the torque link4. an accumulator associated with the steering cylinderThe combination of correct statements is:
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494. The nose wheel assembly must be centred before retraction because